Consider the following passage found in the Doctrine and Covenants, which is a book containing 'revelations' that Joseph supposedly received from God.
"David's wives and concubines were given unto him of me, by the hand of Nathan, my servant, and others of the prophets who had the keys of this power; and in none of these things did he sin against me save in the case of Uriah and his wife;"
(D & C 132:39)
It says that David was given his many wives and concubines by God. Compare that idea with the following one the book of Jacob, in the Book of Mormon.
"Behold, David and Solomon truly had many wives and concubines, which thing was abominable before me, saith the Lord." (Jacob 2:24, Page 121)
David's many wives were an abomination to God.
Anyone with their eyes open can see that these two passages say exactly opposite things. Seeing the two verses of LDS scripture right next to each other presents us with a real PUZZLE. Which one is the truth? The first one says that David's wives were not only okay with God, but that He gave those women to David. The second one
says that God saw David's polygamy as an abomination. Which, if either, can you seriously consider to be the word of God? Which passage came by way of a prophet?
This is not a question of WHEN polygamy might have been okay with God. This is not a question of WHERE polygamy might have been okay with God. This is not a question of WITH WHOM polygamy might have been okay with God. This is about the polygamy of one man, King David, in biblical times, in the kingdom of Israel. Both passages are about the polygamy of the very same man, in the very same place, at the very same time in history, and the two passages contradict each other. What a PUZZLE.
It was 1830 when Joseph Smith and his associates presented the Book of Mormon to the world. The words of Jacob 2:24 were long since forgotten by the time that Joseph Smith brought polygamy to Mormonism. Section 132 of the Doctrine and Covenants now justified his own polygamy as well as the polygamy of many Mormon men. Was verse 39 there to insinuate that God approved of Mormon polygamy?
Whether or not God ever approved of men being married to more than one woman is not up for debate here. The only thing we need to observe is the absolute and direct contradiction of two documents, each of which Mormonism claims to be the Word of God, scripture.
What does this contradiction mean about the claims of Mormonism? Did a prophet of God give them to the world? Was he a prophet? What is the actual source of this confusion, contradiction and chaos? Is it of God? No. I think it is not.
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